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I was taught in church that Enoch was translated into heaven and never died. For quite some time I preached and believed such, until the Lord asked me why I never had searched it out and proven the truth of it. As I searched, I found that the teaching of the church system was totally false in this area. It is our endeavor to share with you the real facts on the matter. "And Enoch walked with God: and he was not; for God took him." Gen.5:24 KJV This verse was one of the verses used to show that God took Enoch all the way to heaven. It does not say that he went to heaven in this verse but an ASSUMPTION was made. We shall look at other verses too, but this one says he was taken but it does not say where. Let us look at the phrase "was not" found in the verse which was quoted. This phrase is used in conjunction with DEATH in the Bible and not with life. In Hebrews 11 it talks about all the great men of faith of which Enoch is mentioned. In verse 13 it states the following about ALL the men: "These ALL died in faith, NOT having received the promises, but having seen them afar off were persuaded..."(KJV) Note that these great men of faith did not receive the resurrection life of Christ. Have you never wondered why Elisha's bones so full of life could give life to another and yet he died ? But let us go back to the phrase "was not" for more consideration. It seems to be related with death, and we find this confirmed in two places in the Bible. "...Rachel weeping for her children refused to be comforted for her children because they WERE NOT."(Jeremiah 31:15) "And why dost thou not pardon my transgression, and take away mine iniquity? For now shall I sleep in the dust; and thou shalt seek me in the morning but I SHALL NOT BE." (Job 7:21) So, what we have here then is confirmed in the Bible in many different ways that ALL the men of faith DIED. Enoch died and "was not." His natural life ended. These other verses using the same concept speak of a natural death. Enoch died. These men of Hebrews 11 died and did not receive the promise. Just what promises are they talking about here? They did not receive the promise of a redeemed body in their lifetime; they did not receive the work of the resurrection because Christ had not come yet. They saw the promises afar off and took hold of them in the spiritual realm but it was not the time for the manifestation in the natural plane. These men could not precede Jesus who was the firstborn from among the dead. Because it was not the time for the resurrection, they died. This includes Enoch as well as Elijah, whom we shall deal with later. But we need to consider some more proof if you will. Let me quote Hebrews 11:5 so that we can dissect it into many pieces for consideration: "By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God translated him; for before his translation he had this testimony, that he pleased God." Now we know that Enoch lived before Jesus did. It seems here that he was translated into heaven, but this contradicts two scriptures which I quote: "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the son of man which is in heaven." (John 3:13) "No man hath seen the Father at any time..." (John 1:18, 1 John 4:12) We know that the scripture does not conflict in any way so there must be a reasonable explanation for this seeming contradiction. Of course there is! As we study each word in Hebrews 11:5 we find that what the King James scholars used as the word "translated" does not mean that at all. The word in the Greek is "METATITHEMI," which comes from two root words, "META" and "TITHEMI." "Meta" means to accompany and "tithemi" means to place in repose, to lay down. Repose means to lie as in death. "Metatithemi" is used 7 times in the Bible and is translated as the following: 1 time as "turning" in Jude 1:4, 1 time as "changed" in Hebrews 7:12, 2 time as "removed" in Galatians 1:6 1 time as "carried over" in Acts 7:16. So, there are many translations each with a different meaning, at least according to the KJV. But as one studies these things we find that each word does mean "to place" in one way or another. The Apocrypha has a book called the Wisdom of Solomon. In chapter 4 we find the word "metatithemi" used. And it refers to death and repose in death. But the word NEVER means translated from earth to heaven! It does mean to change position or from place to place but based on the two scriptures that show NO man has gone to heaven, we therefore know that it cannot mean translation to heaven. And based upon the use of the word in other locations in the scriptures we can state that it does not mean to be translated but to be placed in repose as in death. The key is that TITHEMI means to place in repose as one would in a viewing at a funeral. This would suggest a death. Perhaps we should consider the rest of Hebrews 11:5. Because we all read with a jaundiced eye - that is, we all read things the way we want things to read. We trick ourselves into believing a lie sometimes. "...by faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death..." (Hebrews 11:5) I always took that line of scripture to mean that he did not die, BUT it can have a totally different meaning if one reads it correctly and in context. Remember ALL DIED not having received the promises. If that is true, and the scripture is true, then the phrase "should not see death" can NOT mean he didn't die. Perhaps a better translation of it would be... "by faith Enoch died so that he would not see death working in him." Do you think that this would go along better with the other verses ? I think it is more accurate than the KJV. At any rate, we hope that we have given you some food for thought. For what God is going to do in this hour He has never done before! What a great manifestation it will be when the sons of God are revealed to a world starving to be released from the bondage of corruption and death. God has called us all to be conformed in His image, even to become sons of God (Romans 8:19-20). We are to arrive at a place that death is no longer working within our being by allowing the Lord of our temple (the body in which we live) to reign supreme instead of the carnal nature, that nature which is at enmity with God. ELIJAH - DID HE GO TO HEAVEN OR NOT ? We need to reiterate that Hebrews 11:13 also applies here. For Elijah was considered one of the great men of faith. So, if he was, he died along with the others as the verse states. If that is true, then he was not translated to heaven as church teaching has taught. Before we really get into the "meat" of the truth, let us consider a verse that is on the peripheral. We find that Moses and Elijah were talking with Jesus on the Mount of Transfiguration. Most assume that Moses and Elijah were alive "in heaven." We know that this is not true for Jesus was the firstborn from among the dead ( Romans 11:29). He was the resurrection. He was life. No people had ascended to heaven except the One who had come down from heaven (John 3:13 ). But to prove the point even more that it wasn't really the literal Moses or Elijah talking with Jesus consider the words of Jesus in this matter which are found in Matthew 17:9: "...Tell the VISION to no man, until the Son of Man be risen again from the dead." Here we find that Jesus, Himself, tells the disciples that what they have witnessed is but a vision, and it is not literal. Surely, the words of the Lord are true! But I was taught in church that those were real men, weren't you ? Now then, we must go on and consider the verses that are found in 2 Kings chapters 1-3 on Elijah and his catching up to heaven. Let us note some very important facts. In 2 Kings 1 we find that Ahaziah, son of Ahab has succeeded him to the throne of Israel. He rules for a few years. But the importance here is that Elijah is "caught up" during his time on the throne. We do not know which year it was, but we do know it was during his reign. Remember that church tradition has taught that Elijah was caught up to heaven and never died. But also remember the verses quoted from Hebrews 11:13 stating that all the great men of faith died not having received the promises. Our goal is to show which is correct. Later we find in 2 Chronicles 21:12 that Elijah has a word of the Lord for Jehoram, King of Judah. But in 2 Kings 1 Elijah is caught up in the reign of Israel. So, he is in two different kingdoms. We note in this verse that a "writing" came to Jehoram from Elijah. We shall prove with a chart that this "writing" came at least two years later, after Elijah's catching up. But suffice it to say that if Elijah was "in heaven" at this time I wonder how he got a letter to Jehoram ? It was customary for Israel to use names similar to Judah’s for their kings. The reason for this is that Israel should not have broken away from Judah and when they did they set up counterfeit religious sites as well as similar names for their kings. All this was done in the effort to appear pure and holy.
Note: (1) Jehoram of Israel also known as Joram and this was to keep from confusion between the two kingdoms.
of Ahaziah.
If you look at the chart you will see three (*) by Ahaziah and the same by Jehoram. We wanted to clearly emphasize that Elijah was not translated to heaven. At least 2 years minimum was the time from when he was caught up to the earliest time he could have given the letter to Jehoram. The word in the Hebrew that the King James uses as "went up" means "to take up, arise, ascend, make to go." It does not mean depart from theearth. The word the King James uses for "heaven" in the Hebrew can mean the natural sky as it does in Genesis or the spiritual location of God. But there are enough facts in Hebrews 11:13, John 3:13 and 2 Chronicles 21:12 to show clearly to the diligent searcher of the Bible that Elijah never went to "heaven" but was transported like Philip to another location and showed up years later in ministry. LUCIFER, WHO IS HE REALLY ? Isaiah 14:12 is the only verse in the Bible that uses the word "Lucifer" in the Hebrew. The people who translated the Bible for King James were the ones who determined that this word should be "Lucifer." The Hebrew has no such meaning at all. In fact the word does not even sound like the word Lucifer. The Hebrew in phonetic spelling would be the following sounds of the word Lucifer: hehlehl. The "e" have a long sound and the accent on the "l" or the last syllable. There is no similarity to the English word used - Lucifer. Compare the following translations for an accurate assessment of Isaiah 14:12: "How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the Morning!" (KJV) "What a fall from heaven on high O Shining star of the dawns" (Moffat) "How host thou fallen from heaven, O Shining One, son of the dawn!" (Rotherham) "How are you fallen from heaven O light-bearer and day star, son of the morning!" (Amplified Bible) Note how each translation other than the KJV never uses the word "Lucifer" but goes directly to the Hebrew and uses a transliteration of the word Shining star, Shining One, Light-bearer, Day star. Each of these translations is far more accurate than the King James in the matter. We also note that these other translations are in UNISON on what the word means! Peter calls Jesus the Day star in 2 Peter 1:19 and how He is to arise in our hearts. The Strong’s Concordance brings out that the Greek word is "phosphorus" and can be translated as light-bearing or morning star. Our English word from the Greek is phosphorus. Phosphorus gives off its own light, that is, it has light in itself - a light-bearer. Now, why would Peter, an inspired writer of the letter, being under the direction of the Holy Spirit, compare Jesus as the Day star with Lucifer (as the KJV calls it) if Lucifer is the Devil or Satan? There surely is a mistake here if it were so! But Peter does NOT draw that comparison; it is the erroneous translation of the King James that infers such. Again, reviewing the different translations we find that all refer to LIGHT. This person was a bearer of light, Jesus calls us the children of light. James l:17 says God is the "Father of Lights." Jesus is the "light of the world" and we are to be made in His image - in other words we are to become the Light of the world, that is light bearers. Each of these Greek words for light come from the root Greek "phos" which the word phosphorus comes from. There is so much interrelation here it would seem improbable that Satan could ever have been a bearer of light! How can he who is FULL of darkness have light if darkness is the VOID of light ? Ah, but we will consider his source in a little while. We note that this "light-bearer" was a MAN. We find this in Isaiah 14:16, Ezekiel 28:2: "...Is this the MAN that made the earth to tremble, that did shake kingdoms.." "...yet thou art a MAN, and not God.." Of course, in the natural historical perspective it is talking about the King of Tyre. But the truth in the spiritual sense is NOT talking about a SPIRIT but a MAN. In Isaiah 14 and in Ezekiel we find that this man is cast down, even into the pit, which is found in Isaiah14:15. In contrast we find that Satan is thrown into the "lake of fire" WITH death and hell (Rev.20:10,14). Obviously these are two different beings and not the same. The man is different from Satan as the church system teaches. Why mention this at all? It is necessary to show that Satan is never thrown in the grave because he has no part in a natural death as he is a spiritual being. Only man dies and is placed in a grave. It is only man that can die. It is man that has left his heavenly estate. It is man who needs salvation to be redeemed to that place in God. Satan never fell because he was evil from the beginning (1 John 3:18). If the light-bearer were a MAN, then he could NOT be a SPIRIT, could he? I have always found that even applying scriptures spiritually, the types and shadows do follow a certain form. If the natural refers to a man, so does the spiritual application etc. Since only a man can be buried, that is, placed in sheol, hell or the grave, it must refer to a man rather than a spirit. For Peter brings out in his letter that evil spirits are placed in TARTARUS, which is different from the grave. Here again Satan, although a spirit, is not one of these "common" evil spirits but the ranking one and placed in the lake of fire. (Write us for our message on The Lake of Fire) Consider that "Lucifer" was Adam, for that is what we are driving at. Compare the following verses Romans 8:20 and Ezekiel 28:15 and note the similarity of thought: "For the creature was MADE subject to vanity, NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of Him who subjected the same in hope." "Thou wast perfect in thy ways from the day that thou wast created, TILL iniquity was found in thee." Note that iniquity was in there from the beginning in this vessel. The question is, whose beginning is it - Adam's or Satan's ? Perhaps, now that we have shown that this was a man, who was full of light, let us show that Satan was full of darkness from the BEGINNING. Does the word "beginning" have different connotations or different ''beginning points" or does it mean from the original starting point? That is a serious question. The word ''beginning" occurs 57 times in the King James but is translated as follows: 40 times as beginning, 8 times as principalities, 4 times as first, , 2 times as corners l time as power, l times as rule, l time as principles. Surely a poor job of translation by the KJV. John l:1-2, Matt.l9:4, Mark l0:6 are just a few of the verses which have the word "beginning" in them. If you would be so kind as to read them you will find that each of these is talking about the very beginning of creation time. The starting point of time is what is mentioned here. Now then, if these "beginnings" mean the very original time something began, or its starting point, then doesn't it follow that the word is indicative of that in each situation? I mean beginning means beginning doesn't it or does it mean just one of many beginnings? "Ye are of your father the devil, and the lust of your father ye will do. He was a MURDERER FROM THE BEGINNING (note the following) and abode not in the truth because there is no truth in him." (John 8:44) As one can see, Satan NEVER had any truth in him, but the light-bearer did. Could Satan be the light-bearer just on this difference alone? Of course not! But note also it states Satan was evil from the BEGINNING. He NEVER was good to start with and then fell! Scripture always confirms itself and we find this to be true in l John 3:8 which states: ". . . for the devil sinneth from the beginning." Does beginning mean the beginning or does it mean from something less than the beginning ? We all know what it means. It is church doctrine that has erred for centuries in this matter with false teaching and sleeping saints who have believed this doctrine of the fall of Lucifer was the fall of Satan. I, too, believed it at one time. There was never any light in Satan, he was a murderer from the beginning. It was Adam who was full of light and manifested the glory of God who was "covered over" with skin of the fallen nature, because he fell from the covering of glory and had to settle for an earthly habitation of skin which hides the glory of God. We would suggest other writings available on this subject by writing to us for the Shining One printed in the past by Bill Britton, and our message on who the Cherubim are found in The Sanctuary and its Ministry. In summary then we have the following thoughts which we need to remember. Lucifer (light - bearer) was a MAN not a spirit. He had sin in him but was good to start with; whereas Satan was evil from the beginning. Man can die and be buried in a grave but Satan will be placed in the lake of fire. One final point, scripture does show that Satan was cast out of heaven, but it is not because he sinned that he was cast out. He was cast out because of his nature and the sons of God taking their rightful place. JUDAS ISCARIOT, A MAN CALLED OF GOD We must first discuss some background information before we can concern ourselves with Judas. Does God have all things under control or doesn't He ? It is a serious question that must be answered if we are to grasp some truth about Judas. A lot of people give credit to the devil and his workings. There is no doubt that the devil does a lot, but he is a created being. Now a created being lS LESS THAN the one who created it. Unknowingly, many saints have the theology that the devil is EQUAL to the Lord Jesus Christ in power. It seems that there are good and evil forces contending at all times. This is true, but they are not equal with each other. Jesus conquered and defeated all enemies (1 Cor.15:52-54). "0vercome evil with good," He proclaims. The philosophy that good and evil are equal and opposite comes from eastern mysticism and we can easily trace it to the Yin and the Yang of Chinese culture. This philosophy presents the idea that to each action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The enemy was created by God for a purpose. His purpose is good, because all that God created was good (Gen.1:31). His functioning in that purpose is evil but shall accomplish what the Lord has wanted. Consider the following verses: "I form the light and create darkness... and I create evil: I the Lord do all these things." ( Isaiah 45:7) "...Shall there be evil in a city and the Lord hath not done it ?" (Amos 3:6) "... and an evil spirit from the Lord troubled him." (1 Samuel 16:14) Remember that all things were created by God through Jesus Christ for His own glory! (Col.1:16, Eph.3:9, Rev.4:11) God uses evil to test the saints and others. Satan is an integral part of God's plan. Consider Leviticus 26 and 27. Here we find God saying we can receive blessings or cursings. Everyone agrees that blessings come from God. But the other chapter states that the cursings come from God too. Regardless of the theology of man, God uses evil to accomplish His purposes. Many times in scripture we find the phrase "the angel of the Lord." Most scholars agree that this phrase represents God, Himself. We find that the angel of the Lord slew all the first born of Egypt on the night of the Passover. But to made it even more plain perhaps we should consider the verses of 1 Kings 22:21-24. "And the Lord said unto him(spirit) Wherewith ? And he said, I will go forth and be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And he (God) said, 'Thou shalt persuade him and prevail also...behold the Lord hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these prophets." Yet again let us turn to Exodus 4:11 and consider this verse also: "And the Lord said unto him, Who has made man's mouth ? or who makes the deaf, dumb, or the seeing or the blind ? Have not I the Lord ?" Not only do we see the sovereignty of God in using spirits for his purposes but we also see the purposes of God in the natural body being accomplished. He makes people the way they are for His purposes. Now, just to show that similar things are found in the New Testament, for those who don't like so many quotes from the Old Testament consider these verses from John 9:1-3: "And as Jesus passed by, He saw a blind man which was blind from birth. And his disciples asked him saying, 'Master, who did sin, this man or his parents that he was born blind ?' And Jesus answered 'Neither has this man sinned nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.’" Can you imagine that God caused a man to be born with an affliction for His glory ? It is true. We find in 2 Corinthians 12 that God gave Paul a thorn in the flesh and said that God's grace would be sufficient in the situation. Whether it be the direct hand of God in the afflicting or the work of his agent, Satan, it is always for the purposes that God has planned from the foundation of the world. For the unsaved it is a sign to call upon Him and for the saint it is to cause maturity in adversity. God will be glorified in His saints (2 Thess. 2:10). This not only means in the future but also in the immediate trial of the faith. Many fail to realize that this is the will of God - that He be glorified in the earth. Tantamount to a slap in the face of God and His total sovereignty is the idea of a free will. Here in this doctrine we find the "self" of man as the "captain of his own soul." The poet who wrote such ilk was totally confused. While it is true the scripture that says "Whosoever will call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved," this verse must be balanced with John 6:44 which states: "No man can come to Me except the Father which has sent Me draw him." God not only draws the person but also causes him to respond. Ah, how precious is the sovereignty of God that no man can receive any glory! How often we have heard the statement in a testimony service " The day I came to the Lord...". What a poor statement, we would never have left the sin we were in because we were blinded! It was God, and God alone who drew us to His precious Son's blood. Paul was preordained from his mother's womb and we find that in Galatians 1:15. God hated Jacob and loved Esau from before the birth and we find that in Mal.1:1-3 and Romans 9:13. How very pertinent is the verse of Romans 9:16 which states: "So then it is not of him that willeth nor of him that runneth but of God that shows mercy." God had a plan from the beginning. We must also consider that all of creation was made AFTER Jesus was offered as the sacrifice in the heavens of the spirit (Revelation l3:8) before the world began. Why was Jesus offered first before everything was created (and we know all that was created was created through Him) ? Because God planned the fall of man. Please consider the following verse: "The creature (meaning Adam) was subject to vanity, NOT WILLINGLY, but by reason of Him who subjected the same in hope." (Romans 8:20-21) The Amplified Bible states it this way: "... was subjected to fraility-futility, condemned to frustration not because of some intentional fault on its own part, but by the will of Him who subjected it." God has a plan and is sovereignly performing it The sovereignty of God is even found in the Old Testament where the Lord speaks of Pharaoh very openly and plainly. Let me quote the KJV: "and in very deed for this cause I have raised thee up, for to show in thee my power and that my name may be declared throughout all the earth." (Exodus 9:16) "And the Lord hardened Pharoah's heart" (Exodus 12:9). God is actively involved in His creation. Now, that we have laid a foundation, let us then consider Judas. By the way, his last name was not Iscariot. Iscariot means "traitor". We note that Judas was one of the 12 disciples that Jesus called and this is found in Luke 6:12-18. Judas was called by Jesus who also knew the purpose Judas was called for. In Matthew 10 we find that Jesus gave power of the Spirit to all the disciples to go and cast out demons and heal the sick. This included Judas. Judas knew the Spirit of God and used it for the benefit of people. Judas was highly trusted by the Lord and handled the financial records for the Lord and his followers. There has been much confusion over Matthew 26:24 and the interpretation and how it relates to Judas and Jesus. Let us quote it as it would be in the Greek: "The Son of Man goes, even as it is written of Him; but woe unto that man (JUDAS) through whom the Son of Man is betrayed. Good were it for him (Jesus) if that man (Judas) had not been born." (American Standard) Judas had a call on his life that was spoken of and prophesied about in Psalms 41:9. Judas did not know of his purpose initally but grew into it just as we all grow in the faith of the Lord. He became perplexed with the Lord and the Lord’s spiritual nature when Judas was looking for an immediate kingdom. We find the accounts of the last supper in Luke22 and also in John 13. Let me quote from them for it is important: "And the supper being ended, the devil having now put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, Simon’s son, to betray him..." "Then Satan entered Judas..." Clearly we find that Satan is the culprit who causes Judas to betray the Lord. And truly friends, if you were with Jesus for over three years, I doubt you would willingly betray Him although you might not understand all that He said. The love of Jesus that kept the 11 from falling (John 17:12) could have kept Judas if not for the will of the Father. It seems from this verse of John 17:12 that Judas was lost, but that is not entirely true. The purpose for which he was created, he fulfilled. He was faithful, unfortunately, in a "dirty" job. Matthew 27:3 is a VERY IMPORTANT scripture in the change that Judas went through after he had betrayed our Lord. Let me quote it and the capital letters are mine for emphasis: "Then Judas which had betrayed Him, when he saw that he was condemned, REPENTED HIMSELF..." We know that Judas returned to the priests and offered his money back. This is one sign of a repentant heart but the law required much more. The Old Testament law was still in effect at his time, since Jesus had not died yet and it had certain requirements for the freeing of a person from a sin. It required a life for a life. This would fulfill the law of the Old Testament. Let me quote verse 4 and 5 of Matthew 27: "Saying I have SINNED in that I have betrayed innocent blood... and he cast down the pieces of silver in the temple and departed and went and HANGED himself." He had not only recognized his sin and repented but also being a devout Jew realized that the law had to be fulfilled and so hung himself, a life for a life. Romans 9:20-23 talks about the potter and the vessels of honor and DISHONOR in HIS HOUSE. The potter is God. The vessels are you and I. Good and bad all have a part in the Lord. Judas fulfilled the law and was clean, that is, righteous according to it. So, that when Jesus died and rose again, perhaps we could say that Judas was one of the first to come forth of all those who were resurrected from the time before the death of the Lord. Judas was a man called of God to fulfill an ugly position. He was found faithful and according to the righteousness of the day, that Old Testament law; he was also righteous in the way he gave himself in death for the life of the One he took.
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